Order Hematology Homework Discussion Questions

Order Hematology Homework Discussion Questions
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Order Hematology Homework Discussion Questions
1. Clinical effects of unfractionated heparin (UFH) are best monitored by which of
the following?
A. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
B. Prothrombin time (PT)
C. International normalized ratio (INR)
D. Antithrombin III (ATIII)
2. With respect to reversal with protamine, which of the following statements is
true when comparing UFH and low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)?
A. UFH results in less predictable reversibility.
B. UFH results in more predictable reversibility.
C. Hypotension is less likely with UFH.
D. Hypotension is more likely with UFH.
3. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT2) is mediated by which of the
following?
A. IgG antibodies binding to heparin-PF-4 complexes on the surface of red blood
cells (RBCs)
B. IgG antibodies binding to ATIII on the surface of RBCs
C. IgG antibodies binding to heparin-PF-4 complexes on the surface of platelets
D. IgG antibodies binding to ATIII on the surface of platelets
4. HIT typically presents in what period after the initiation of therapy?
A. 1-3 days
B. 3-5 days
C. 5-10 days
D. 10-15 days
Order Hematology Homework Discussion Questions
5. The mechanism of action of hirudin-derived compounds involves which of the
following?
A. Inhibition of vitamin K–derived clotting factors
B. Inhibition of thrombin in its free and fibrin-bound states
C. Potentiation of vitamin K–derived clotting factors
D. Potentiation of thrombin in its free and fibrin-bound states
6. 6. Warfarin’s primary mechanism of action is inhibition of the synthesis of
vitamin K–dependent clotting factors. These factors include which of the
following?
A. Factors II, VII, VIII, and X and protein C
B. Factors II, VII, VIII, and XII and proteins C and S
C. Factors VII, IX, X, and XII and protein S
D. Factors II, VII, IX, and X and proteins C and S
7. Before undergoing a trigger finger release under local anesthesia at an
orthopedic surgeon’s office, a patient’s dabigatran should be discontinued for
what length of time?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 48 hours
8. Tranexamic acid, a lysine analogue, acts by which of the following mechanisms?
A. Reversibly binds to plasminogen, thereby preventing the degradation of fibrin
B. Inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2
C. Inhibition of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors
D. Inhibition of glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa expression on the surface of activated
platelets
9. When comparing prothrombin complex concentrates (PCCs) with fresh frozen
plasma (FFP), which of the following is true?
A. PCCs have a faster correction of coagulopathy.
B. PCCs have a higher risk of infection.
C. PCCs require a larger volume for administration.
D. PCCs require a type and cross before administration.
10. Fondaparinux exerts its effects by which of the following?
A. Acting as an antagonist to free factor VII
B. Acting as an antagonist to free factor IX
C. Acting as an antagonist to free factor Xa
D. Acting as an antagonist to the expression of GP IIb/IIIa
11. The effects of aspirin therapy can be reversed by infusing which of the
following products?
A. Vitamin K
B. Platelets
C. Protamine
D. von Willebrand factor
12. The effects of aspirin therapy rely primarily on the direct inhibition of which of
the following?
A. COX-1, TxA2
B. COX-2, TxA1
C. COX-1, COX-2
D. COX-1 only
13. For patients on aspirin therapy at a high risk of cardiac events in the
perioperative period, which of the following should be performed?
A. Aspirin should be discontinued 24 hours before surgery and resumed after
6 weeks.
B. Aspirin should be continued throughout the perioperative period.
C. Aspirin should be discontinued at least 5 days (preferably 10 days) before
surgery and resumed after 24 hours.
D. Aspirin should be continued until surgery and discontinued for 6 weeks
postoperatively.
14. 14. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of ADP receptor
antagonists such as clopidogrel?
A. Inhibition of GP IIb/IIIa expression on the surface of activated platelets
B. Inhibition of the action of GP Ib
C. Promotion of GP IIb/IIIa expression on the surface of activated platelets
D. Promotion of the action of GP Ib
Order Hematology Homework Discussion Questions
15. Eptifibatide (integrellin) is an inhibitor of which of the following?
A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Phosphodiesterase
C. ADP receptors
D. GP IIb/IIIa receptors
16. Autologous blood transfusion involves which 3 methods?
A. Preoperative autologous blood donation, acute normovolemic hemodilution, and
perioperative blood cell salvage
B. Preoperative allogenic blood donation, acute normovolemic hemodilution, and
perioperative blood cell salvage
C. Preoperative autologous blood donation, acute hypervolemic hemodilution, and
perioperative blood cell salvage
D. Preoperative allogenic blood donation, acute hypovolemic hemodilution, and
perioperative blood cell salvage
17. To increase the amount of times one may safely donate his/her own blood
(autologous blood donation) for a future surgical procedure, which of the
following may be administered to the patient before donation?
A. Intravenous iron
B. Oral iron
C. Factor VIII concentrate
D. Erythropoietin
18. Which of the following examples could be an indication for using the process
known as “acute normovolemic hemodilution”?
A. Congenital heart disease
B. Refusal of allogenic blood products
C. Anticipated blood loss of one-third of the patient’s volume
D. Preoperative anemia
19. A primary concern with intraoperative blood cell salvage includes which of the
following?
A. Lack of validated evidence
B. Increased rates of infection compared with allogenic blood products
C. Dilutional coagulopathy
D. Decreased stimulation of erythropoiesis
20. Perioperative blood salvage can be considered if the estimated blood loss will
likely exceed which of the following?
A. 500 mL
B. 1000 mL
C. 1500 mL
D. 2000 mL
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